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Vincent Keane's avatar

I find it difficult to rationalise the position of the RACP on the Affirmative model of gender ‘care’ of children diagnosed with gender dysphoria.

On the 5th of March 2020 it was stated thus:

"The RACP strongly supports expert clinical care that is non-judgemental, supportive and welcoming for children, adolescents and their families"

Note: No reference to the need for ‘evidence’

On May 14th 2024 I wrote to the President-elect and Board Chair of the RACP questioning the ‘strong support’ for an untrialled, irreversible and sterilising procedures in children .

The response I received was not extensive but did include the following:

Due to the current evidence-gap the RACP does not have a position on clinical care that involves the use of hormone therapy in children and adolescents with gender dysphoria.

Due to the multidisciplinary needs of individuals experiencing gender dysphoria, the RACP advice is that the Federal Government should develop a nationally consistent framework, through an evidence-based process.

I would have thought that given the acknowledgment of an ‘evidence gap’ the advice should be to cease such interventions until such time as evidence was available, or at the very least, until a mechanism to recruit evidence was put in place.

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Andrew Orr's avatar

Thanks Guy, I just thought it would be of relevance to our statutory regulatory body of AHPRA’s position in the ( slow but likely inexorable) challenge to GAC ( specifically for minors) here in Australia for the effect of the closure of GIDS at Tavistock to have reverberated through the UK’s equivalent body. We were to understand that there were a number of class actions underway in the UK and would be of interest to see if the targets of the litigants extended beyond individual clinicians and the GIDS body. Legal nets are usually cast wide, so who would be surprised if their relevant colleges and their statutory regulatory body were not to become deemed culpable , and therefore targeted through historical inaction? I just thought Dr Cass might have discussed such detail, given it might have relevance here, where our courts historically follow British legal precedence. From Bernard’s reply , my question remains.

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